Results 1 to 2 of 2
  1. #1
    Untangle Ninja YeOldeStonecat's Avatar
    Join Date
    Aug 2007
    Posts
    1,520

    Default Can the WAN balancer route traffic out WAN1 if 100% traffic is allocated to WAN2 if..

    Trying to separate VoIP phone traffic to go out the failover DSL connection on WAN1...to remove it from the heavily trafficked Comcast connection on WAN2

    So failover works great. Pull the WAN2 Comcast and immediately all traffic shoots out the WAN1 DSL link.

    But with the WAN Balancer...I have 0% traffic on the WAN1 DSL and 100% traffic on the WAN2 Comcast.
    However I just added the destination rules in there...in the WAN Balancer Routes page...If destination address is <blah.blah.blah.blah>...use WAN1 DSL.

    So I completed those an hour ago, and I'm looking in the sessions..and I see some Polycom phones...tied to their destination IPs that I entered in the routing rules..and they're still going out WAN2 Comcast.

    Is it because of the 0% rule? I assumed that the manually entered route rules in the WAN balancer module would over-rule the 0% split.
    Resident "Geek on a Harley" in Southeast Connecticut, USA.

  2. #2
    Untangle Junkie dmorris's Avatar
    Join Date
    Nov 2006
    Location
    San Carlos, CA
    Posts
    17,342

    Default

    Correct, rules take precedence over the balancing. If a rule says it should go out wan x then the balancing numbers are not consulted. Rules only apply to new sessions though.

    I would just check your rules and against the list of sessions in reports to verify it should match and that the session was created after the rule was created.
    Attention: Support and help on the Untangle Forums is provided by volunteers and community members like yourself.
    If you need Untangle support please call or email support@untangle.com

Posting Permissions

  • You may not post new threads
  • You may not post replies
  • You may not post attachments
  • You may not edit your posts
  •  

SEO by vBSEO 3.6.0 PL2